Analytic and Synthetic: Kant and the Problem of
First Principles
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Except for outright Skeptics, Aristotle's solution to the Problem
of First Principles, that such propositions are known to be true
because they are self-evident, endured well into Modern Philosophy.
Then, when all the Rationalists, like Descartes, Spinoza, and Leibniz,
appealed to self-evidence and then all came up with radically different
theories, it should have become clear that this was not a good enough
procedure to adjudicate the conflicting claims. This awkward situation
was then blown apart by Hume, under whose skeptical examination,
reviving the critique of al-Ghazl, even the principle of causality
crumbled.
Kant does not directly pose the Problem of First Priniciples, and
the form of his approach tends to obscure it. Thus, the "Transcendental
Logic" in the Critiqiue of Pure Reason is divided into the
"Transcendental Analytic" and the "Transcendental
Dialectic." The "Dialectic" is concerned with the
fallacies produced when metaphysics is extended beyond possible
experience. The "Analytic," about secure metaphysics,
is divided into the "Analytic of Concepts" and the "Analytic
of Principles." "Principles" would be Principia in
Latin, i.e. "beginnings," "first things," "first
principles," where now in English, thanks to the drift in the
meaning of "principle," the term must be reduplicated
with an etymologically redundant "first." Kant, however,
is here writing in German, and in place of Principia we have Grundstze
(singular Grundsatz, "principle," "axiom" --
literally "ground sentence"). The examination of the Grundstze,
however, is deferred until after and "Analytic of Concepts."
Thus, were the Problem of First Principles to be raised, it seems
like that would come after an examination of concepts. Since it
is not raised at all, one is left with the impression that it has
somehow, along the way, actually already been dealt with. It has.
The peculiarity of Kant's approach, from an Aristotelian (or Friesian)
point of view, is not idiosyncratic. Kant approaches the matter
as he does because he is responding to Hume, and one of Hume's intitial
challenges is about the origin of "ideas." While the Problem
of First Principles is about the justification of propositions,
Hume's Empiricist approach goes back to asking about the legitimacy
of the very concepts, of which the propositions are constituted,
in the first place. The Rationalists never worried too much about
that. For Descartes, any notion that could be conceived "clearly
and distinctly" could be used without hesitation or doubt,
a procedure familiar and unobjectionable in mathematics. It was
the Empiricists who started demanding certificates of authenticity,
since they wanted to trace all knowledge back to experience. Locke
was not aware, so much as Berkeley and Hume, that not everything
familiar from traditional philosophy (or even mathematics) was going
to be so traceable; and Berkeley's pious rejection of "material
substance" lit a skeptical fuse whose detonation would shake
much of subsequent philosophy through Hume, thanks in great measure
to Kant's appreciation of the importance of the issue.
Thus, Kant begins, like Hume, asking about the legitimacy of concepts.
However, the traditional Problem has already insensibly been brought
up; for in his critique of the concept of cause and effect, Hume
did question the principle of causality, a proposition, and the
way in which he expressed the defect of such a principle uncovered
a point to Kant, which he dealt with back in the Introduction to
the Critique, not in the "Transcendental Logic" at all.
Hume had decided that the lack of certainty for cause and effect
was because of the nature of the relationship of the two events,
or of the subject and the predicate, in a proposition. In An Enquiry
Concerning Human Understanding, Hume made a distinction about how
subject and predicate could be related:
All the objects of human reason or enquiry may naturally be divided
into two kinds, to wit, Relations of Ideas, and Matters of Fact.
Of the first kind are the sciences of Geometry, Algebra, and Arithmetic;
and in short, every affirmation which is either intuitively or demonstratively
certain [note: these are Locke's categories]. That the square of
the hypothenuse is equal to the square of the two sides, is a proposition
which expresses a relation between these figures. That three times
five is equal to the half of thirty, expresses a relation between
these numbers. Propositions of this kind are discoverable by the
mere operation of thought, without dependence on what is anywhere
existent in the universe. Though there never were a circle or triangle
in nature, the truths demonstrated by Euclid would for ever retain
their certainty and evidence.
Matters of fact, which are the second objects of human reason,
are not ascertained in the same manner; nor is our evidence of their
truth, however great, of a like nature with the foregoing. The contrary
of every matter of fact is still possible; because it can never
imply a contradiction, and is conceived by the mind with the same
facility and distinctness, as if ever so conformable to reality.
That the sun will not rise to-morrow is no less intelligible a proposition,
and implies no more contradiction than the affirmation, that it
will rise. We should in vain, therefore, attempt to demonstrate
its falsehood. Were it demonstratively false, it would imply a contradiction,
and could never be distinctly conceived by the mind. [Enquiries,
Selby-Bigge edition, Oxford, 1902, 1972, pp.25-26]
Both paragraphs warrant quoting in full. The first now would seem
properly more a matter of embarrassment than anything else. Whatever
Hume expected from intuition or demonstration, it would be hard
to find a mathematician today who would agree that "the truths
demonstrated by Euclid would for ever retain their certainty and
evidence." If Hume's fame rests on this point, there would
be little to recommend it. The second paragraph, however, redeems
the impression by giving us a logical criterion to distinguish between
truths that are "relations of ideas" and those that are
"matters of fact": A matter of fact can be denied without
contradiction.
This was the immediate inspiration to Kant, who can have asked
himself how something "demonstratively false" would "imply
a contradiction." A contradiction means something of the form
"A and not-A." If a proposition expressing a matter of
fact can be denied without contradiction, then the subject and the
predicate of such a proposition cannot contain anything in common,
otherwise the item would turn up posited in the subject but negated
in the predicate of the denial. On the other hand, a proposition
that cannot be denied without contradiction must contain something
in the predicate that is already in the subject, so that the item
does turn up posited in the subject but negated in the predicate
of the denial. This struck Kant as important enough that, like Hume,
he founded a whole critique on it, and also produced some more convenient
and expressive terminology. Propositions true by "relations
of ideas" are now analytic ("taking apart"), while
propositions not so founded are synthetic ("putting together").
This clarified distinction Kant could then turn on Hume's own examples
of "relations of ideas." Can geometry be denied without
contradiction? Kant did not see that the predicates of the axioms
of geometry contained any meaning already expressed in the subjects.
They were synthetic. They could be denied without contradiction.
Geometry would thus not have an intuitive self-evidence or demonstrative
certainty that Hume claimed for it. Kant still thought that Euclid,
indeed, would have certainty, but the ground of certainty would
have to located elsewhere. Nevertheless, Kant is rarely credited,
and Hume rarely faulted, for their views of the logic of the axioms
of geometry. If the axioms of Euclid can be denied without contradiction,
this means that systems of non-Euclidean geometry are logically
possible and can be constructed without contradiction. But it is
not uncommon to see the claim that Kant actually denied this, and
it is Kant, not Hume, who is typically belabored for implicitly
prohibiting the development of non-Euclidean system. This distortion
can only come from confusion and bias, a confusion about the meaning
of "synthetic" (even in Hume's corresponding category),
and a bias that the Analytic tradition has for British Empiricism,
by which the glaring falsehood of Hume's statements is ignored and
Kant's true and significant discovery misrepresented. This curious
and reprehensible turn is considered in detail elsewhere.
Kant, as it happens, also did not see how arithmetic could be analytic.
In his own example of "7 + 5 = 12" (p. B-15), if "7
+ 5" is understood as the subject, and "12" as the
predicate, then the concept or meaning of "12" does not
occur in the subject. This was rather harder to swallow than the
point about geometry, for it seems rather "intuitively"
certain that "7 + 5 = 12" cannot be denied without contradiction.
Kant must have missed something. Hope for demonstrating the analytic
nature of arithmetic came with the development of propositional
logic, since a proposition like "P or not P" clearly cannot
be denied without contradiction, but it is not in a subject-predicate
form. Still, "P or not P" is still clearly about two identical
things, the P's, and "7 + 5 = 12" is more complicated
than this. But, if "7 + 5 = 12" could be derived directly
from logic, without substantive axioms like in geometry, then its
analytic nature would be certain. In their Principia Mathematica
(1910-1913), Russell and Whitehead and, in the Tractatus, Wittgenstein
thought that they could indeed derive arithmetic from logic. Their
demonstrations, however, were flawed, and it turned out that substantive
axioms were necessary, just like in geometry. The axioms are now
those of axiomatic Set Theory, and it is Set Theory that concerns
the foundations of arithmetic. Kant turned out to be right again,
though, curiously, he is again rarely credited for this.
Kant's discovery, however, can be trivialized if it turns out that
there are simply no analytic propositions at all. This task was
undertaken by Willard Van Orman Quine ("Two Dogmas of Empiricism,"
1950). The approach, simply enough, was Nominalistic. If we say
that "red is a color" is an analytic proposition, where
is "color" in "red"? I don't see it. If we say
that the meaning "color" is in the meaning of "red,"
where are these "meaning" things? I don't see them. Thus,
if language consists of words but not abstract meanings, then we
don't have to worry about one meaning containing another. "Red
is a color" is just a convention of our language, which is
even what we can say about "P or not P." Besides the generally
failings of Nominalism, Quine's particular critique is well refuted
by Jerrold Katz.
In Kant there is little left in the category of "analytic."
Definitions and truths of logic are going to be about it; and the
definitions themselves will be suspect when the concepts defined
may or may not be legitimate. The meaning within a concept must
also in some sense be "put together," and the ground of
this will raise the same questions as the ground of synthetic propositions.
Thus, Saul Kripke began to speak of "analytic a posteriori"
propositions, when the meanings in the subject are themselves united
on only a posteriori grounds, i.e. the basis of experience. Indeed,
dictionary definitions of natural language words are prima facie
of conventional usage, e.g. how a pot is different from a pan, and
the meaning of any words can be simply stipulated for some appropriate
purpose, e.g. a "designated hitter" can go to bat for
some particular member of a baseball team (usually the pitcher),
without otherwise replacing him in other play. Thus, a big fight
over the existence of analytic propositions doesn't in the end make
that much difference. Synthetic propositions are the key anyway,
as they were if Kant wanted to answer Hume's critique of causality.
For, indeed, outside of an axiomatized logic itself, the First
Principles of Demonstration will be synthetic. However Kant can
explain the truth of non-empirical synthetic propositions, i.e.
those that are a priori instead of a posteriori, that will be his
answer to the Problem of First Principles. They are clearly now,
after Hume, not going to be self-evident. Yet Hume himself is often
poorly understood. While it is common to say that Hume denied the
existence of synthetic a priori propositions, there is some question
about whether he actually does. He says that the relationship of
cause and effect is not discovered or known by any reasonings a
priori, but that is not the same thing. A synthetic a priori proposition
is not known from any reasonings. In fact, Hume does not see that
the relationship of cause and effect is discovered or known from
anything, since it is not justified by experience, in which there
is no necessary connection between cause and effect, and there is
in fact nothing in the cause to even suggest the effect, much less
than the effect must follow. Hume's famous explanation was a psychological
one, that we become accustomed to the association of certain events
("causes") with others ("effects"); but this,
obviously, carries no weight whatsoever about the nature of things,
which is what makes Hume, very properly, a Sketpic.
At the same time, Hume had no doubts whatsoever of the necessity
of cause and effect. This is where he is commonly misrepresented.
People assume that because he was a Skeptic, then he must have thought
it possible for causes to occur without effects, i.e. for the principle
of causality to be contradicted in actuality. He never had any such
expectation, and in fact he ruled out a priori, not only miracles,
but also chance and free will just because they would violate (a
very deterministic) causality. Confusion over this occurs because
people do not appreciate that Hume as an "Academic" Skeptic,
holding that lack of knowledge (the meaning of "Skepticism")
does not rule out "reasonable" beliefs. Causality is a
"reasonable" belief because, as Hume says, "All reasonings
concerning matter of fact seem to be founded on the relation of
Cause and Effect" [Enquiry, op. cit., p. 26]. So without it,
we would have no basis of reasoning in daily life. Thus, Hume says:
Nor need we fear that this philosophy, while it endeavors to limit
our enquiries to common life, should ever undermine the reasonings
of common life, and carry its doubts so far as to destroy all action,
as well as speculation. Nature will always maintain her rights,
and prevail in the end over any abstract reasoning whatsoever. Though
we should conclude, for instance, as in the foregoing section, that,
in all reasonings from experience, there is a step taken by the
mind which is not supported by any argument or process of the understanding
[i.e. from cause to effect]; there is no danger that these reasonings,
on which almost all knowledge depends, will ever be affected by
such a discovery. [ibid., p. 41]
Kant therefore understood that Hume's problem was not with the
quid facti, that there were causes and effects, and necessary connection,
but with the quid juris, the epistemic justification of the principle.
While some philosophers spent much of the 20th Century congratulating
Hume for having discovered that causality might not exist, they
never seem to have noticed that he explicitly denied having done
anything of the sort. Kant already knew the type, who "were
ever taking for granted that which he doubted, and demonstrating
with zeal and often with impudence that which he never thought of
doubting..." [Prolegomena to Any Future Metaphysics, p. 259,
Lewis White Beck translations, Bobbs-Merrill, 1950, p.6].
Kant's solution to the quid juris in the Critique of Pure Reason
was the argument of the "Transcendental Deduction" (in
the "Analytic of Concepts") that concepts like causality
are "conditions of the possibility of experience," because
they are the rules by which perception and experience are united
into a single consciousness, through a mental activity called "synthesis."
Once the existence of consciousness is conceded (which not everyone,
e.g. behaviorists, might be willing to do), then whatever is necessary
for the existence of consciousness must be conceded.
This is a strong argument and, decisive or not, is heuristically
of great value, especially when we untangle it from the earlier
views of perception in the Critique. However, it suffers from a
couple of serious drawbacks. One is that, like Hume's own explanation,
it is a psychological approach that does not necessarily tell us
anything about objects, i.e. consciousness may be united in a way
that is irrelevant to external things. Kant seemed to recognize
this himself when he said that none of this gives us any knowledge
of things-in-themselves. This problem was never properly sorted
out by Kant, and is considered independently in "Ontological
Undecidabilty".
The second drawback of Kant's argument is that it would only work,
indeed, for the "conditions of the possibility of experience,"
and not for any other matters which might seem to involve synthetic
a priori propositions. Hume himself was just as concerned about
morality as about causality, and found himself in the same Skeptical
position in both matters. The only comparable thing that Kant can
do for morality, however, would be to employ a principle of the
"conditions of the possibility of morality." But this
would require conceding that morality exists, which is something
that a very large number of people in the 20th century, far beyond
behaviorists, would not be willing to do. Nor does it make one a
Kantian merely to vaguely appeal to human "rationality"
(e.g. John Rawls) as a basis for morality, since this really just
begs the question of justification -- besides violating Hume's famous
observation that propositions of obligation ("ought,"
imperatives) cannot be logically derived from propositions of fact
("is," indicatives).
Keeping in mind that First Principles cannot be proven, and that
synthetic propositions can be denied without contradiction, the
conspicious historical alternatives seem to be to deny one or the
other. Hegel denied the first, by taking the equivalent of Kant's
Transcendental Deduction as itself a part of metaphysics and a proof,
by means of novel principles of "dialectical" logic, of
moral and metaphysical truths. To an extent, Hegel may also have
denied the second, as Leibniz certainly did, treating any moral
or metaphysical truth as analytic, if only from the point of view
of divine omniscience. Either such move, however, cannot escape
the original embarrassments of Rationalism, or avoid the devastation
inflicted by the criticisms made by Hume and Kant.
Less conspicous historically was Jakob Fries, who could accept
the proper meanings of "First Principle" and of synthetic
propositions. The Friesian theories of deduction and of non-intuitive
immediate knowledge make it possible to preserve the advances of
Hume and Kant without falling back into Rationalism or heading for
the Nihilism (so different from Hume's Skepticism), relativism,
scientism, pragmatism, etc., so conspicuous in the 20th century.
Later, Karl Popper proposed a special solution for the Problem in
that science, by using falsification, does not need to worry about
a positive justification of First Principles at all. This enables
scientific progress to heedlessly continue, as it has, regardless
of the status of any philosophical solution.
Thus, Kant gave us the real elements of the solution of the Problem
of First Principles, even though he could not complete and seal
the matter himself. Indeed, no one can hope to do that, even as
new elements and new understanding of the solution emerge over time.
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